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Fr. Pablo Ormazabal Albistur's avatar

"Faith is not required for validity because the minister need not intend what the Church intends (e.g. to give grace), but merely intend to do what she does (to perform a sacred rite)". This is an interesting way of approaching the question. But here, in the sense also of the question arised by Eric S, the question is: "Which rites?" I do believe that liturgical changes had not rendered invalid the sacraments of the Church as much as the proclaim at least the essential believe on the sacraments. But there has been a change of the believe. I put an example. In the traditional rite of Baptism there are several exorcism. In the new rites only one. Some priests of my dioceses (real life) do not pray that prayer. They do not perform that rite of the minor exorcism. I do positively know that they do not believe in the preternatural action of the devil and in some case neither on the existence of the original sin. So why I have to asume that when the baptize with the proper formula "N., I baptize you in the Name of the Father,...." but omitting some previous rites the baptism is valid?. I think this is an interesting question, since for us canonists we try to save the validity and the presumption of validity of the sacraments as much as we can. What do you think?

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Fr. Scott Bailey, C.Ss.R.'s avatar

Than you for this post. I can state categorically that in the seminary I attended (the now defunct hotbed of heresy The Washington Theological Union) nothing was ever said about the necessity of intention. I was lucky enough that at that time there were still priests living with us that had studied and been formed before the “spirit of Vatican II” took hold. They were a solid rock in the storm.

Alas, given the formation and education I received, I often wonder if I should even function as a priest. It was really that bad.

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